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DrSharkey
Member
| Joined: | Wed Aug 22nd, 2007 |
| Location: | Jackson, Tennessee USA |
| Posts: | 36 |
| First Name: | John | | Gender: | Male | | Faith History: | Agnostic, Southern Baptist (sorta), church of Christ, looking Romeward |
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Posted: Wed Sep 5th, 2007 05:52 pm |
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I know that the "deuterocanon (dc)" books are true scripture. I wonder, though, about how they were incorporated into the early Bibles used by the Catholic Church. What I mean is, I just purchased a RSV-CE, and it has the dc books interspersed throughout the Old Testament. I've seen on-line versions of the original KJV, and it included the dc, but put them in a separate section.
Which way were they included in the Septuagint?
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http://sharkeysworld.blogspot.com/
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David W. Emery
Network Helper
| Joined: | Fri Sep 29th, 2006 |
| Location: | Brownsville, Texas USA |
| Posts: | 1790 |
| First Name: | David | | Gender: | Male | | Faith History: | Catholic |
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Posted: Wed Sep 5th, 2007 06:17 pm |
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Hello again, John. Good to see you.
The deuterocanonical books have always been interspersed with the others wherever they have been recognized as canonical. This is true of the (originally Jewish) Septuagint, of the Vulgate, and of all subsequent Catholic editions. A few recent versions vary the order of books slightly overall, but this seems to be done as a reader’s aid rather than a dogmatic statement.
The Protestant bible follows the Septuagint order of books just like the Catholic bible, but accepts only the Hebrew canon. If the Deuterocanonical books (or as they call them, the Apocrypha) are included, they are almost always in a separate section at the end of the Old Testament, because this is how Martin Luther did it for his German version.
The current Jewish scriptures, which follow the Hebrew canon established about 100 to 200 AD, follow an entirely different order.
David
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CajunRick
Network Helper
| Joined: | Fri Sep 29th, 2006 |
| Location: | Houma, Louisiana USA |
| Posts: | 5079 |
| First Name: | Rick (& Kermie) | | Gender: | Male | | Faith History: | Lifetime Catholic, Latin Rite |
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Posted: Thu Sep 6th, 2007 02:17 pm |
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DrSharkey wrote: I know that the "deuterocanon (dc)" books are true scripture. I wonder, though, about how they were incorporated into the early Bibles used by the Catholic Church. What I mean is, I just purchased a RSV-CE, and it has the dc books interspersed throughout the Old Testament. I've seen on-line versions of the original KJV, and it included the dc, but put them in a separate section.
Which way were they included in the Septuagint?
Remember also that there was no "bible" as we know it today until the invention of the printing press. Most likely the individual books were hand-copied into multiple volumes. Hand-copied on parchment, a complete copy would have been much too large to handle.
However, the Catholic Church has never considered the deuterocanonicals any less inspired scripture than the rest, and so they would simply have been "part" of the bible however it was reproduced.
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Understanding is the reward of faith. Therefore seek not to understand that you may believe, but believe that you may understand. - Augustine
Rick Luquette
Luquette Lane
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