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CHNI Forums > Questions about Catholicism > Scripture > Question for those with a Protestant Bible (Rom 3:28: "faith alone"?)


Question for those with a Protestant Bible (Rom 3:28: "faith alone"?)
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3John4
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 Posted: Thu Jan 31st, 2008 01:13 am

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As I've mentioned before, I'm doing Jeff Cavins' Great Adventure Bible Study this year.  Last week he stated (on the DVD) that in protestant translations in Rom. 3:28 the word "alone" is italicized, with a footnote saying "added by Martin Luther".  My protestant husband just sneered and shook his head in disgust at that. 

I believe Jeff has actually seen this, but when I went home and checked all the bibles we have (at least 6 protestant ones) none of them had "alone" in italics or mentioned any footnote.  Does anyone have a bible that has these things?  If so, which one?

Thanks,

Dede


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David W. Emery
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 Posted: Thu Jan 31st, 2008 01:25 am

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I believe, Dede, that Jeff was speaking of Luther’s own German version, which is, to my knowledge, the only one that adds the word “alone” to the text.

David


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setapart
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 Posted: Thu Jan 31st, 2008 02:13 am

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3John4 wrote: As I've mentioned before, I'm doing Jeff Cavins' Great Adventure Bible Study this year.  Last week he stated (on the DVD) that in protestant translations in Rom. 3:28 the word "alone" is italicized, with a footnote saying "added by Martin Luther".  My protestant husband just sneered and shook his head in disgust at that. 

     

Thanks,

Dede

Although you may not find the word "alone" footnoted in almost all translations, this premise is one of the pillars of protestantism.

Below is a quote from an artilce from CRI in an article concerning faith and works:


Salvation by faith alone is one of the most important Christian doctrines.

This is an example of how strongly this teaching is believed. So whether or not Romans 3:28 has the word "alone" or not - it is strongly surmised that this is what St. Paul meant to say.

YBIC,

Bill



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DrDave
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 Posted: Thu Jan 31st, 2008 10:41 am

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The only one I found was from the Joseph Smith Translation Rom 3:28 "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith alone without the deeds of the law." Which is what the LDS (used to ?) use.

From memory, however, I believe that the vast majority of the JST was taken word for word from the version of the King James that was in use at the time.

I couldn't make head nor tail of the Klingon version Rom 3:28 "maH maintain vaj vetlh a loD ghaH justified Sum HartaHghach apart vo' the vum vo' the chut" :D

Regards Doc


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3John4
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 Posted: Thu Jan 31st, 2008 11:25 am

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Dave,

You started my morning out with a laugh.  Thanks!


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CajunRick
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 Posted: Thu Jan 31st, 2008 11:41 am

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DrDave wrote: maH maintain vaj vetlh a loD ghaH justified Sum HartaHghach apart vo' the vum vo' the chut" :D
I'd love to hear that in an Ozzie accent!!!



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 Posted: Thu Jan 31st, 2008 12:58 pm

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3John4 wrote: I believe Jeff has actually seen this, but when I went home and checked all the bibles we have (at least 6 protestant ones) none of them had "alone" in italics or mentioned any footnote.  Does anyone have a bible that has these things?  If so, which one?

I looked in about eight Bibles last night (my grandfather's old Bibles), two of which were parallel Bibles, and didn't see "alone" in any of them.  So David must be right, it must have been Luther's version.  Which makes the statement seem a little inaccurate.


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3John4
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 Posted: Thu Jan 31st, 2008 04:36 pm

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Actually, a friend of mine just discovered that while in the text the words "apart from the law" rather than "alone" are used in the Zondervan NIV Study Bible, the footnote to the verse states that Luther clarified the true intent of the verse to have originally meant "faith alone".  Perhaps, since this is a very commonly used protestant bible, this is the one Jeff was referencing. (?)

 


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3John4
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 Posted: Mon Feb 4th, 2008 02:13 am

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David,

You are SO SMART!!!  I decided to email Jeff directly, and he graciously and promptly answered me.  You were right, it was from Luther's own German translation. 

Notably impressed,

Dede


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David W. Emery
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 Posted: Mon Feb 4th, 2008 04:05 am

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It’s just straightforward research, Dede.

I saw the Jeff Cavins video some time back when it was presented on EWTN, and I recalled him making that remark in the video. I figured Jeff would have researched his assertion before presenting it, and EWTN would have double checked it before allowing the video to be shown under their auspices. (EWTN carefully researches everything they air. They have several theologians on staff that do nothing but this. The result is that you can trust everything they present to be completely orthodox and in accord with the best scholarship.)

I also checked every Protestant bible I had handy (about 15 electronic texts on the computer; took me about 5 minutes) and found that not one of them followed Luther. The conclusion was simple: Luther was the only one who used the phrase “faith alone” in Romans.

This fact alone should remind us that the idea of Protestants getting their idea of sola fide from the bible is not really true; they got it from Martin Luther. Protestant Bibles since then, regardless of the translation, prove it.

David


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Dave Armstrong
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 Posted: Mon Feb 4th, 2008 06:55 pm

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It so happens that I recently touched upon this topic in relation to another I was writing about regarding Luther. Here is what Luther himself wrote about this matter:

[From: An Open Letter on Translating, Martin Luther, 8 September, 1530; translated from Weimar Werke (WA) by Gary Mann, 1995]

I also know that in Rom. 3, the word "solum" is not present in either Greek or Latin text - the papists did not have to teach me that - it is fact! The letters s-o-l-a are not there. And these knotheads stare at them like cows at a new gate, while at the same time they do not recognize that it conveys the sense of the text - if the translation is to be clear and accurate, it belongs there. I wanted to speak German since it was German I had spoken in translation - not Latin or Greek. But it is the nature of our language that in speaking about two things, one which is affirmed, the other denied, we use the word "solum" only along with the word "not" (nicht) or "no" (kein). For example, we say "the farmer brings only (allein) grain and no money"; or "No, I really have no money, but only (allein) grain"; I have only eaten and not yet drunk"; "Did you write it only and not read it over?" There are a vast number of such everyday cases.

In all these phrases, this is a German usage, even though it is not the Latin or Greek usage. It is the nature of the German tongue to add "allein" in order that "nicht" or "kein" may be clearer and more complete. To be sure, I can also say "The farmer brings grain and no (kein) money, but the words "kein money" do not sound as full and clear as if I were to say, "the farmer brings allein grain and kein money." Here the word "allein" helps the word "kein" so much that it becomes a clear and complete German expression.

We do not have to ask about the literal Latin or how we are to speak German - as these asses do. Rather we must ask the mother in the home, the children on the street, the common person in the market about this. We must be guided by their tongue, the manner of their speech, and do our translating accordingly. Then they will understand it and recognize that we are speaking German to them.
Well, all that may be well and good. I still think that Luther's theological bias is coming through at this point, as well, and that it colored his translation.



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