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Darlene
Member
| Joined: | Mon Oct 9th, 2006 |
| Location: | Pocono Mountains, Pennsylvania USA |
| Posts: | 868 |
| First Name: | Darlene | | Gender: | Female | | Faith History: | Christian, trusting His love and forgiveness |
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Posted: Wed Feb 7th, 2007 12:26 am |
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Hello Again,
The discussion under the RCIA category sparked a question in my mind regarding John Chapter 2. Long ago I was taught that when Jesus said to Mary, "Oh woman, what have you to do with me, my hour has not yet come," He was speaking past Mary to the Church. In other words, He was saying that the time had not yet come for the Church to be born, this meaning that it was not God's will for Jesus to die on the cross just yet, in order that His bride could be born. So although Jesus was speaking to Mary, He also was recognizing her as a figure for the Church, the Bride of Christ.
So what do the rest of you think of that interpretation?
Darlene
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The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ and the love of God and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all. II Corinthians 13:14
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David W. Emery
Network Helper
| Joined: | Fri Sep 29th, 2006 |
| Location: | Brownsville, Texas USA |
| Posts: | 2072 |
| First Name: | David | | Gender: | Male | | Faith History: | Catholic |
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Online
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Posted: Wed Feb 7th, 2007 12:59 am |
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I’ve heard of this interpretation, Darlene. Isn’t it the one offered in the NAB notes? My main objection to it is that it is too simplistic. It requires a one-to-one equivalency between Mary and the Church — something that does not really seem possible unless Mary IS the Church, and that we cannot allow. I’ve already expressed my thoughts on this verse today here (scroll down). You will notice some similarity, but without insisting that Mary was “forcing the issue.”
David
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